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Rudin 2.5

Rudin 2.5

av Leo Lundberg -
Antal svar: 3

I find the solution here hard to understand, what prevents any arbitrary a + 1/n from being considered a limit point if n can be any arbitrarily large natural number (since a point p is a limit point if every neighbor of p has at least one point in E)? I also find the argument for when x != 1,2,3 hard to follow, what is "The set U of y" meant to be? What is y in that context?

Som svar till Leo Lundberg

Sv: Rudin 2.5

av Oliver Lindström -
Hi!
Let me try to break down the answer to the different parts of your question here.

Q: "what prevents any arbitrary a + 1/n from being considered a limit point if n can be any arbitrarily large natural number (since a point p is a limit point if every neighbor of p has at least one point in E)?"

A: Do you mean that p = a + \frac{1}{n} should be a limit point of the set since every neighbourhood U of p has a point in E, namely p itself. If so this is a very good observation but unfortunately your definition of a limit point is slightly incorrect. The correct definition is that p is a limit point of a set S if every neighbourhood U of p contains at least one point in S EXCEPT p itself. Using mathematical notation we say that p is a limit point of S if
S \cap (U \setminus p) \neq \emptyset.
This means that p= a+\frac{1}{n} is not a limit point of E since the open neighbourhood (a +\frac{1}{n+1}, a+\frac{1}{n-1}) of p contains no points in E except for p itself.

I am not sure if my interpretation of this question is wrong so let me know if this was not the answer you were looking for.

Q: "what is "The set U of y" meant to be? What is y in that context?"

A: I agree that the formulation in the solution is a bit unclear. What they mean is that U is the set of all real numbers y such that |x-y| < \frac{\delta}{2}. That is y is just used to denote a point in U, or perhaps more accurately, y denotes any point and then they give a condition for which points y are points in U. Using mathematical notation we would write
U = \{y \in \mathbb R\  | \ |x-y| < \frac{\delta}{2} \} .
When W is defined y is used in the same way. It denotes a point and then they give a condition for when such a point is an element of W.

I hope that helps but if not then please let me know and I will try to clarify!
Som svar till Oliver Lindström

Sv: Rudin 2.5

av Leo Lundberg -
Thank you for the help! Regarding A, I find it hard to reason around a + 1/n not being a limit point because i get the impression that a + 1/(n+1) should be within the specified interval and also a != a + 1/(n+1) so that the Neighborhood(a + 1/n) contains ( a + 1/(n+1) ). Thus the intersection between E and the Neighborhood should produce a set containing ( a + 1/(n+1) ). Cant we inductively keep increasing n like this and find more limit points? The explanation for B made it a lot clearer, thank you :)
Som svar till Leo Lundberg

Sv: Rudin 2.5

av Oliver Lindström -
I am not sure if I understand you. The point  a+ \frac{1}{n+1} is not an element of the open interval  U = (a+ \frac{1}{n+1}, a+ \frac{1}{n-1} ). Furthermore, if k \geq n+1, then  a+ \frac{1}{k} \leq a+ \frac{1}{n+1} so a+ \frac{1}{k}  \notin U and similarly if k \leq n-1, then  a+ \frac{1}{k} \leq a+ \frac{1}{n+1} so a+ \frac{1}{k}  \notin U. This means that  a+ \frac{1}{n} really is the only point of E in the open interval U.

If this does not answer your question could you please specify what you mean by "the Neighborhood (a + 1/n)"? Every point has an infinite number of neighbourhoods and it is not true that all of them contain the point  a+ \frac{1}{n+1} as your question seems to suggest. In fact, for any two (different) real numbers, x, y, one can always find an open neighbourhood of x which does not contain y. Trying to prove this is a good exercise but if you struggle I (or any textbook) can tell you why this is the case.